KMUCAT Special Test (2025) - ePrepare Academy

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KMUCAT Special Test 2025 (Tutor Mode)

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✅ After selecting an answer, the correct choice and a detailed explanation will appear instantly.

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1 / 97

1. Which of the following orbitals has a dumbbell shape?

A) s

B) p

C) d

D) f

Explanation:

p orbitals have two lobes with a nodal plane through the nucleus classic “dumbbell” shape aligned along x, y, or z axes. This shape reflects their angular node pattern (l = 1).

2 / 97

2. A compound is 40.0% C, 6.7% H and 53.3% O by mass. Relative molecular mass is between 55 and 65. What is the molecular formula?

A) CH₂O

B) C₂H₄O

C) C₂H₄O₂

D) C₂H₂O₂

Explanation:

Given: 40.0% C, 6.7% H, 53.3% O; Relative molecular mass (Mr) is between 55 and 65.

Convert % to moles (assume 100 g sample)

C: 40.0 g ÷ 12.0 = 3.33 mol
H: 6.7 g ÷ 1.0 = 6.7 mol
O: 53.3 g ÷ 16.0 = 3.33 mol

Simplest whole-number ratio
Divide by the smallest (≈3.33):

C: 3.33/3.33 ≈ 1
H: 6.7/3.33 ≈ 2
O: 3.33/3.33 ≈ 1
Empirical formula = CH₂O.

Empirical molar mass:
M(CH₂O) = 12 + 2(1) + 16 = 30 g/mol.
Use the given Mr range (55–65):
n = (molecular mass)/(empirical mass) ≈ 60/30 = 2
Molecular formula = (CH₂O)×2 = C₂H₄O₂.

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3. Which sample contains the most atoms?

A) 0.5 moles of water (H₂O)

B) 1.0 moles of carbon dioxide (CO₂)

C) 1.0 moles of methane (CH₄)

D) 2.0 moles of hydrogen chloride (HCl)

Explanation:

Number of atoms = moles × atoms per molecule.
H₂O: 0.5×3 = 1.5 mol atoms
CO₂: 1.0×3 = 3
CH₄: 1.0×5 = 5
HCl: 2.0×2 = 4.
Thus methane gives the largest total atoms.

4 / 97

4. Electronic configuration of K is

A) [Ar] 4s²

B) [Ar] 4s¹

C) [Kr] 4s¹

D) [He] 4s¹

Explanation:

Potassium (Z = 19) fills up to argon ([Ar] = 18) and then places the 19th electron in 4s.
Full configuration: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹
condensed as [Ar] 4s¹.

5 / 97

5. How much % of calcium is in calcium carbonate?

A) 80%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 20%

Explanation:

M(CaCO3) = 40.1 + 12.0 + 3×16.0 = 100.1 g mol⁻¹.
%Ca = 40.1/100.1 × 100 = 40%.

6 / 97

6. The reaction whose rate does not depend on the concentration terms of the reactants involved in the rate expression is the

A) Not possible

B) Zero order reaction

C) First order reaction

D) Second order reaction

Explanation:

In zero-order kinetics, rate = k, independent of reactant concentrations . The rate stays constant until a limiting reagent or condition changes.

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7. In many reactions reactants pass through intermediates before products form. The rate at which product is produced depends on the

A) Fastest step

B) Slowest step

C) Intermediate step

D) First step

Explanation:

In a multistep mechanism, the rate-determining step is the slowest one. It acts as a bottleneck that limits the overall rate, regardless of faster steps before or after it.

8 / 97

8. If molar concentration of a reactant “A” is one, then rate of the reaction of “A” will be

A) Greater than rate constant

B) Less than rate constant

C) Equal to rate constant

D) Zero

Explanation:

For a general rate law rate = k[A]^n.
When [A] = 1 mol dm⁻³
rate = k × 1ⁿ = k.
This holds irrespective of the order n, so the numerical value of the rate equals the rate constant.

9 / 97

9. Equilibrium constant expression in non-aqueous medium can be applied to

A) An aqueous solution of sucrose

B) An aqueous solution of table salt

C) An aqueous solution of fructose

D) A solution of kerosene

Explanation:

“Non-aqueous” means the solvent is not water. Kerosene is a non-aqueous solvent, so equilibria written for such media apply here.
The other options are explicitly aqueous and therefore not non-aqueous systems.

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10. Buffer is a solution which

A) Has constant pH

B) Resists change in its pH

C) Consists of a strong acid and a strong base

D) Contains salts of strong acids and strong bases

Explanation:

A buffer minimizes pH change upon small additions of acid or base. It is typically a weak acid base with its conjugate salt. Its pH is not perfectly constant it just changes very little within capacity limits.

11 / 97

11. If one mole of gaseous hydrogen is mixed with one mole of gaseous iodine in an empty container then with the passage of time rate of

A) The forward reaction increases

B) Both forward and reverse reaction remains unaffected

C) The reverse reaction decreases

D) The forward reaction decreases

Explanation:

Initially only H₂ and I₂ are present, so the forward rate is maximum while the reverse rate is zero. As HI forms, the forward rate falls (reactants are consumed) and the reverse rate rises. At equilibrium both rates become equal and constant, but the forward rate has decreased from its initial value.

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12. “X” is an imaginary plane that divides a crystal into two equal halves that are exact mirror images. The proper term for “X” is

A) Axis of rotation

B) Plane of symmetry

C) Center of symmetry

D) Axis of inversion

Explanation:
A plane of symmetry (mirror plane, m) reflects one half of the crystal into the other, producing mirror-image halves.
It is a planar symmetry element, not a line or a point. This is exactly what the statement describes.

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13. All of the following are covalent network crystals except

A) SiO2

B) Graphite

C) S8

D) Diamond

Explanation:
Sulfur exists as discrete S8 rings, the crystals are molecular held together mainly by dispersion forces, giving low melting and softness.
SiO2, graphite, and diamond are extended covalent networks with very high melting points and hardness (graphite has 2D covalent sheets).

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14. Crystals in which lattice points are occupied by metal ions are

A) Ionic crystals

B) Covalent crystals

C) Molecular crystals

D) Metallic crystals

Explanation:
In metallic crystals, the lattice sites are occupied by metal atoms/ions immersed in a delocalized “sea” of electrons.
This structure accounts for properties like conductivity, malleability, and luster. The lattice is essentially a close-packed array of metal species.

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15. All of the following are liquid crystals except

A) Soap solution

B) DNA

C) Cholesteryl formate

D) Engine oil

Explanation:

Engine oil is an ordinary isotropic liquid of hydrocarbons and does not show mesophases. Soap solutions and concentrated DNA exhibit lyotropic liquid-crystal phases. Cholesteryl formate is a classic thermotropic (cholesteric) liquid crystal.

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16. Methyl amine and hydrogen peroxide are liquids due to

A) Dipole–dipole forces

B) Dispersion forces

C) Hydrogen bonding

D) Dipole–dipole forces and dispersion forces

Explanation:

Both CH₃NH₂ and H₂O₂ contain N–H or O–H groups that can donate and accept H-bonds.
Strong hydrogen bonding greatly raises boiling points, so they are liquids at room temperature.

Why the other options are wrong:
a) Dipole–dipole forces: present but too weak alone to explain their high boiling points.
b) Dispersion forces: weakest and not the primary cause here.
d) Dipole–dipole plus dispersion: still insufficient without hydrogen bonding.

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17. Equal moles of O₂, Cl₂, and H₂ are enclosed at room temperature. If the container leaks accidentally then

A) H₂ will effuse out first

B) Cl₂ will effuse out last

C) O₂ will effuse out second

D) All will effuse out at the same time but with different rates

Explanation:

Graham’s law:
rate ∝ 1/√M.
Order by molar mass: H₂ (2) > O₂ (32) > Cl₂ (71).
Thus H₂ escapes fastest, O₂ next, and Cl₂ slowest.

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18. Which element has the strongest Van der Waals attraction between its molecules?

A) Hydrogen

B) Oxygen

C) Chlorine

D) Nitrogen

Explanation:

London dispersion forces grow with electron count and polarizability.
Cl₂ has the largest molar mass and electron cloud among the options, so its intermolecular attraction is strongest.
This correlates with its higher boiling point.

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19. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at

A) High temperature and low pressure

B) Low temperature and high pressure

C) High temperature and high pressure

D) Low temperature and low pressure

Explanation:

Real gases deviate from ideal when molecules are close and intermolecular forces matter
i.e., low T (reduced KE) and high P (crowding).
Under high T and low P, gases approach ideality.

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20. A container with a porous wall has 1 mole each of He, H₂, N₂, and O₂. Which gas will take the least time to diffuse out?

A) He

B) H₂

C) N₂

D) O₂

Explanation:

By Graham’s law

rate ∝ 1/√M.
M(H₂)=2 is smallest, so H₂ diffuses fastest and exits in the least time.
He (4), N₂ (28), O₂ (32) are heavier and diffuse more slowly.

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21. If maximum value of principal quantum number for an atom is 4, the total number of electrons in the atom will be

A) 32

B) 60

C) 18

D) 28

Explanation:

Capacity of the n-th shell is 2n².
Total up to n = 4
putting in formula
2(1²+2²+3²+4²) = 2(1+4+9+16) = 60 electrons.
So an atom filling shells up to n = 4 can hold 60 electrons.

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22. Total charge on an electron is approximately

A) −1.6×10⁻²⁰ C

B) −1.6×10⁻¹⁷ C

C) −3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C

D) −1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C

Explanation:

The elementary charge has magnitude 1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C.
An electron carries this charge with a negative sign due to its polarity.

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23. One gram atom of chlorine is equal to

A) One mole of chlorine atoms

B) 35.5 grams of chlorine

C) 71 grams

D) Both a & b

Explanation:

A gram-atom equals the atomic mass in grams and also equals 1 mole of atoms.

why other options are wrong:
a) One mole of chlorine atoms True, but incomplete as the question expects all equivalent statements (also 35.5 g).
b) 35.5 grams of chlorine Also true, but incomplete alone; the full correct choice is “both a & b.”
c) 71 grams That is the molar mass of Cl₂ molecules (gram-molecule), not one gram-atom of chlorine atoms.
hence both a and b is correct

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24. One atom of sodium is

A) 23 g

B) NA moles

C) Positively charged

D) 1/NA moles

Explanation:

1 mole contains NA atoms (Avogadro’s number), so
1 atom = 1/NA mole.

Why other options are wrong:

a) 23 g : That is the mass of 1 mole of Na atoms, not a single atom.
b) NA moles: NA moles equals 6.022×10^23 moles, which is huge; 1 atom is 1/NA of a mole.
c) Positively charged: A single sodium atom is neutral; Na⁺ is the ion formed after losing one electron.

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25. The magnetic force Fm on a charge q moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B is

A) Fm = q (v × B)

B) Fm = q v² × B

C) Fm = q v⁴ × B

D) F = qE + q (v × B)

Explanation:

Magnetic force on a moving charge is
Fₘ = q (v × B)

This force depends on the cross product, so it acts perpendicular to both v and B.
Magnitude is
Fₘ = q v B sinθ

Option D is the total (Lorentz) force including electric field:
F = qE + q (v × B)

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26. The resistivity ρ of copper in Ω·m is

A) 1.52×10⁻⁸

B) 1.54×10⁻⁸

C) 5.00×10⁻⁸

D) None of these

Explanation:

Resistivity of copper at room temperature (about 20 °C) is approximately

ρ(copper) ≈ 1.68×10⁻⁸ Ω·m

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27. In a transistor, the emitter–base junction is

A) Reverse biased

B) Forward biased

C) Neutral

D) None of these

Explanation:

In active mode, the emitter–base junction is forward biased to inject majority carriers from the emitter into the base.
The collector–base junction is reverse biased to sweep these carriers into the collector.
Thus amplification is possible.

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28. Two metallic conductors have the same resistivity. These conductors can be differentiated by the values of their

A) Temperature coefficient

B) Resistance

C) Conductance

D) Conductivity

Explanation:

Resistivity ρ is equal
so conductivity σ = 1/ρ is also equal.
Resistance and conductance depend on geometry (L and A), not just the material.
The temperature coefficient of resistivity (α) is a material fingerprint and can differ even if ρ at one temperature is the same.

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29. The negative gradient of electric potential is also called:

A) Potential energy

B) Electric field intensity

C) Electric potential energy

D) Electron volt

Explanation:

Electric field is the negative gradient of potential:
E = −∇V
This means the field points toward decreasing potential and its magnitude is the spatial rate of change of V.
Units are V/m (or N/C).

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30. If the temperature of the source (hot reservoir) increases, the efficiency of a Carnot engine:

A) Increases

B) Decreases

C) Remain constant

D) None of the above

Explanation:

Carnot efficiency η = 1 − Tc/Th (temperatures in kelvin).
With Tc fixed, raising the source (hot reservoir) temperature Th makes Tc/Th smaller.
So η increases the engine in principle convert a larger fraction of heat to work.

31 / 97

31. The temperature scale independent of the nature of the working substance is:

A) Celsius

B) Fahrenheit

C) Centigrade

D) Thermodynamic scale

Explanation:

The thermodynamic (Kelvin) scale is defined from the Carnot cycle/Second Law and is universal, not tied to properties of a specific substance like water.

32 / 97

32. For all irreversible processes, the entropy of the system:

A) Decreases

B) Remain constant

C) Zero

D) Increases

Explanation:

By the Second Law, entropy of an isolated system increases for irreversible changes and is constant only for reversible ones. It never decreases.

33 / 97

33. A 30 cm long string with one end clamped and the other free vibrates in its second harmonic. The wavelength of the constituent travelling waves is:

A) 10 cm

B) 30 cm

C) 40 cm

D) 120 cm

Explanation:

For a string with one end clamped (node) and the other end free (antinode), the allowed standing wave condition is

L = (2n − 1) λ/4

Second harmonic means n = 2, so

L = 3λ/4
λ = 4L/3

Given L = 30 cm

λ = 4(30)/3 = 40 cm

34 / 97

34. What is correct for all transverse waves?

A) They will involve oscillation of the atoms

B) They can all be polarized

C) They can travel through a vacuum

D) Both (a) & (c) are correct

Explanation:

Polarization is a hallmark of transverse waves (displacement perpendicular to propagation). Longitudinal waves cannot be polarized.
Only electromagnetic waves travel in a vacuum
many transverse mechanical waves need a medium.

35 / 97

35. When sound waves move from one medium to another, the quantity that remains the same is:

A) Wavelength

B) Frequency

C) Speed

D) Intensity

Explanation:

The source fixes the frequency; it doesn’t change at a boundary.
Since ,
a change in speed causes the wavelength to change.
Intensity usually changes due to reflection/absorption.

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36. Which of the following type of force do no work?

A) Elastic force

B) Frictional force

C) Gravitational force

D) Centripetal force

Explanation:

Work = F·s cosθ. Centripetal force is always perpendicular (θ = 90°) to the instantaneous displacement in circular motion,
so W = 0.
The others can have a component along displacement and may do work.

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37. When a body moves against the force of friction on a horizontal plane, the work done by the body is:

A) Negative

B) Positive

C) Zero

D) Maximum and positive

Explanation:

Friction does work on the body equal to W_f=-f_ks (negative)
But the body (or applied force) doing work against friction performs (positive)
e.g., at constant speed.
Zero work would require no displacement or no force; “maximum and positive” is not a standard choice.

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38. The distance between a node and the adjacent antinode is

A) λ/4

B) λ/2

C) λ

D) 2λ

Explanation:

Adjacent nodes are λ/2 apart, antinodes are also λ/2 apart.
A node lies midway between two antinodes
node–antinode spacing = (λ/2)/2
= λ/4.

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39. When two waves, same frequency and amplitude, travel in opposite directions and meet, the pattern formed is

A) Transverse waves

B) Longitudinal waves

C) Stationary (standing) waves

D) Electromagnetic waves

Explanation:

Superposition creates nodes (zero displacement) and antinodes (max displacement).
Energy doesn’t travel along the medium the pattern oscillates in place

40 / 97

40. A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is

A) Circular

B) Two straight segments

C) Hyperbolic

D) Parabolic

Explanation:

Motion is x = v₀ t (uniform) and y = ½ g t² (free fall).
Eliminating t yields y ∝ x²
a parabola (projectile motion with no air resistance).

41 / 97

41. A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is

A) Zero

B) Constant but not zero

C) Increasing uniformly with time

D) Both (a) and (c)

Explanation:

From F = m a
a = F/m.
A constant non-zero F gives constant a.
Zero net force gives zero acceleration
a time-increasing force gives non-uniform acceleration.

42 / 97

42. The value of Boltzmann constant is

A) 6.022×10²³ J K^-1

B) 1.38×10^-23 J K^-1

C) 1.38×10^-24 J K^-1

D) 8.314 J K^-1

Explanation:

kB = 1.380649×10^-23 J/K (SI exact).
6.022×10²³ is Avogadro’s number
8.314 is the gas constant (per mol·K).
10^-24 J/K is incorrect by a factor of 10.

43 / 97

43. The time rate of change of magnetic flux has the exact dimensions as that of

A) Current

B) Resistance

C) Magnetic induction

D) Potential difference

Explanation:

Faraday’s law gives induced emf (ε) as
ε = − dΦ/dt
So dΦ/dt has the same dimensions as emf, and emf is potential difference.

Dimension check:
Magnetic flux
Φ = B A

Magnetic field
[B] = tesla = N/(A m)

[N] = kg m s⁻²
So
[B] = (kg m s⁻²)/(A m)
[B] = kg s⁻² A⁻¹

Now flux:
[Φ] = [B][A]
[Φ] = (kg s⁻² A⁻¹)(m²)
[Φ] = kg m² s⁻² A⁻¹

Rate of change:
[dΦ/dt] = (kg m² s⁻² A⁻¹)/s
[dΦ/dt] = kg m² s⁻³ A⁻¹

Volt (potential difference) also has:
[V] = kg m² s⁻³ A⁻¹

So dΦ/dt matches potential difference.

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44. The dimension of work is like the dimensions of

A) Impulse

B) Torque

C) Power

D) Angular momentum

Explanation:

Work = Force × distance
dimensions: M L² T^-2.
Torque = Force × lever arm
same M L² T^-2.
why other options are wrong:
Impulse (M L T^-1)
angular momentum (M L² T^-1)
power is M L² T^-3.

45 / 97

45. Which part of the brain controls voluntary movements and balance?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Cerebrum

C) Cerebellum

D) Hypothalamus

Explanation:

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, posture, and balance (motor fine-tuning).
The cerebrum plans/initiates movement the medulla controls vital autonomic centers
the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and endocrine control.

46 / 97

46. Endometriosis will cause infertility in:

A) Male

B) Female

C) Both male & female

D) None of the above

Explanation:

Endometriosis is ectopic endometrial tissue in women, leading to inflammation and adhesions.
It can impair tubal function, ovulation, or implantation, reducing fertility.
It is not a male condition.

47 / 97

47. Compared with the few days before ovulation, which hormone is released in increased quantities three days after ovulation?

A) FSH

B) LH

C) Oestrogen

D) Progesterone

Explanation:

After ovulation, the ruptured follicle becomes the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone.
Progesterone rises sharply in the luteal phase to prepare the endometrium.
The LH surge triggers ovulation then falls FSH remains low oestrogen dips then modestly rises.

48 / 97

48. Which statement best explains why hemophilia is more common in males than in females?

A) It is caused by a dominant autosomal gene

B) It is a Y-linked disorder

C) It is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait

D) It is more often acquired later in life due to liver disease

Explanation:

Males are XY and have only one X chromosome , a single mutant X allele causes disease.
Females (XX) must inherit two mutant copies to be affected, so they are usually carriers.
Y-linked disorders pass father to son but hemophilia is not Y-linked.

49 / 97

49. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for providing long-term immunity after a vaccination?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgM

D) IgE

Explanation:

After the initial IgM response, B cells class-switch to produce IgG, which persists for months to years.
IgG is the major antibody in blood and tissue and is boosted by memory B cells on re-exposure.
IgA protects mucosa; IgE mediates allergy/parasites; IgM is short-lived primary response.

50 / 97

50. What is the causative organism of syphilis?

A) Treponema pallidum

B) Micoplasma pneumoniae

C) Plasmodium

D) Vibrio cholera

Explanation:

Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Mycoplasma causes atypical pneumonia
Plasmodium causes malaria
Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.

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51. In a kidney dialysis machine, which substance will not be diffused from the patient’s blood into the dialysis fluid?

A) Protein

B) Salts

C) Urea

D) Water

Explanation:

Dialysis uses a semipermeable membrane that allows small solutes (urea, salts, water) to cross.
Large molecules like plasma proteins cannot pass through the pores.
Therefore proteins remain in the blood.

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52. In the human heart, why is the wall of the right ventricle thicker than the wall of the right atrium?

A) The chambers have different oxygen concentrations

B) The right atrium must pump blood all the way around the body

C) The right ventricle must exert a greater force than the right atrium

D) The right ventricle receives more blood than the right atrium

Explanation:

The atrium only pushes blood into the ventricle (low pressure work.)
The right ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary artery against higher resistance.
Greater force requirement → thicker muscular wall.

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53. The genotype for the height of an organism is written as Tt. What conclusion may be drawn?

A) The allele for height has at least two different genes

B) There are at least two different alleles of the gene for height

C) There are two different genes for height, each having a single allele

D) There is one allele for height with two different forms

Explanation:

Tt means the organism is heterozygous: it carries two versions of the same gene T and t.
Alleles are alternative forms of a gene here both alleles are present.
Options a/c/d misuse “gene” vs “allele” or say an allele has “forms,” which is incorrect.

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54. Which statement about chromosome is correct?

A) Chromosomes are long DNA molecules called genes which are divided into sections

B) Chromosomes include a long molecule of DNA divided into sections called genes

C) Chromosomes include genes which are divided into sections called DNA molecules

D) Genes include long DNA molecules called chromosomes

Explanation:

A chromosome is one long DNA molecule (with proteins) organized into many genes.
Genes are segments of DNA that code for RNAs/proteins.
Options a, c, and d invert this relationship

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55. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the breakdown of two molecules of glucose in aerobic respiration?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 12

Explanation:

Per one glucose: Link reaction (2 CO₂) + Krebs cycle (4 CO₂) = 6 CO₂.
For two glucose molecules: 2×6=12 CO₂ in total.
Glycolysis itself releases no CO₂.

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56. Which statement is correct for all viruses but not for all bacteria and fungi?

A) Most of the cell is cytoplasm

B) Their outer layer is cellulose

C) They are all parasites

D) They have a nucleus containing DNA or RNA

Explanation:
★ Viruses cannot carry out metabolism or reproduction on their own
★ They must infect a living host cell to replicate
★ Hence, all viruses are obligate parasites
★ Bacteria and fungi may be free-living or parasitic, so this is not true for all of them
★ Correct answer is C) They are all parasites

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57. Which structures are all involved in controlling human body temperature?

A) Blood vessels near the skin surface, the cerebellum and sweat glands

B) Blood vessels near the skin surface, the hypothalamus and skeletal muscles

C) Kidneys, the cerebellum and sweat glands

D) Kidneys, the hypothalamus and skeletal muscles

Explanation:

The hypothalamus is the body’s thermostat.
Skin blood vessels regulate heat loss (vasodilation/vasoconstriction).
Skeletal muscles generate heat via shivering.
The cerebellum/kidneys aren’t temperature controllers.

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58. Insulin is manufactured commercially using genetic engineering. Which organism is used to produce large quantities of insulin?

A) Viruses

B) Bacteria

C) Fungi

D) Animals

Explanation:

Recombinant human insulin is produced by inserting the insulin gene into bacteria (e.g., E. coli).
The bacteria express the protein at scale, which is purified for medical use.

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59. Insulin is secreted by:

A) Alpha cells

B) Beta cells

C) Delta cells

D) Acinar cells

Explanation:

Pancreatic islets contain β-cells that produce insulin, lowering blood glucose.
α-cells secrete glucagon;
δ-cells secrete somatostatin.
Acinar cells are exocrine (digestive enzymes), not endocrine.

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60. Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones of:

A) Steroid nature

B) Amino acid nature

C) Protein nature

D) Polypeptide nature

Explanation:

These sex hormones are synthesized from cholesterol thus they are steroids.
They are lipid-soluble, diffuse through membranes, and act via intracellular receptors.
Protein/polypeptide and amino-acid-derived hormones have different chemistry and signaling.

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61. The type of nerve impulse in non-myelinated neuron will be:

A) Continuous

B) Saltatory

C) Electrical

D) All of them

Explanation:

Without myelin, the action potential is regenerated at every adjacent membrane segment.
This produces slow, continuous conduction along the axon.
Saltatory (“jumping”) conduction occurs only in myelinated fibers at nodes of Ranvier.

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62. A wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of a neuron, from one end to the other is:

A) Reflex arc

B) Reflex action

C) Nerve impulse

D) Influx

Explanation:

A nerve impulse (action potential) is a propagated change in membrane potential.
It moves along the axon via depolarization followed by repolarization.
“Reflex arc” is the whole pathway; “reflex action” is the response, not the traveling signal.

63 / 97

63. The bronchioles are located at the end of the bronchi and terminate in the:

A) Lungs

B) Alveoli

C) Alveolar sac

D) Both B and C

Explanation:

The bronchioles are the smallest airways in the lungs. They branch out from the bronchi and end in alveolar structures.

Alveoli (B) are the tiny air sacs where gas exchange takes place.

Alveolar sacs (C) are clusters of alveoli at the end of the bronchioles.

So, bronchioles do not directly terminate in the lungs as a whole (A). Instead, they lead into alveolar sacs, which contain the alveoli.

64 / 97

64. A respiratory surface must be permeable, thin, have large surface area and a good supply of:

A) Gases

B) Lymph

C) Blood

D) All of them

Explanation:

Efficient diffusion requires a rich blood supply to maintain concentration gradients.
“Gases” are what diffuse across; “lymph” is not central for gas exchange.
Therefore blood is the needed supply.

65 / 97

65. The respiratory system gives the basic ability to:

A) Smell

B) Transport electrolytes

C) Intake of Oxygen

D) Excrete Creatinine

Explanation:

The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange O₂ uptake and CO₂ removal.
Smell is accessory via olfactory epithelium; electrolytes and creatinine are handled by other systems.
Hence the best single answer is intake of oxygen.

66 / 97

66. All of the following are bacillus (rod-shaped) bacteria except:

A) Pseudomonas

B) Clostridium

C) Salmonella

D) Streptococcus

Explanation:

Pseudomonas, Clostridium, and Salmonella are rod-shaped.
Streptococcus are spherical (cocci) arranged in chains.

67 / 97

67. Which of the following causes tuberculosis and leprosy?

A) Streptomyces

B) Actinomycetes

C) Mycoplasma

D) None of these

Explanation:

TB and leprosy are caused by Mycobacterium (M. tuberculosis, M. leprae). Mycobacteria belong to the high Gram-positive phylum Actinomycetota (actinomycetes).
Streptomyces are actinomycetes that make antibiotics, not TB/leprosy; Mycoplasma cause a typical pneumonia.

68 / 97

68. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by the oro-fecal route?

A) Hepatitis A

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis C

D) None of the above

Explanation:

HAV spreads via contaminated food/water (fecal-oral).
HBV and HCV are transmitted mainly via blood, sexual contact, and perinatally.
Hepatitis E is also fecal-oral but is not listed here.

69 / 97

69. All of the following are viruses except:

A) SARS

B) FIV

C) SIV

D) Mycoplasma

Explanation:

Mycoplasma are wall-less bacteria (prokaryotes), not viruses.
SARS is a coronavirus
FIV and SIV are lentiviruses related to HIV.

70 / 97

70. Tobacco mosaic virus is:

A) Spherical

B) Tad-pole like

C) Rod shape

D) Polyhedral

Explanation:

TMV particles are rigid, helical rods with RNA wrapped in a protein coat. They are neither spherical nor polyhedral and have no tail like bacteriophages.

71 / 97

71. The first stable product of dark reaction is a ____-carbon molecule:

A) 6

B) 4

C) 3

D) 5

Explanation:

In the Calvin cycle (dark reaction of C3 plants), the first stable product is 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA), a 3-carbon compound.}
Note: in C4 plants the first stable product is 4-carbon (oxaloacetate), but the general “dark reaction” refers to the Calvin cycle.

72 / 97

72. mRNA’s primary function is to

A) bring amino acids to ribosomes

B) replicate DNA

C) transmit genetic code from DNA to ribosomes

D) form the ribosomal structure

Explanation:

mRNA is the “messenger” transcribed from DNA and carries codons to the ribosome.
tRNA (not mRNA) brings amino acids.
rRNA forms ribosomal structure, and DNA replication is done by DNA polymerases.

73 / 97

73. Co-enzymes are derived from:

A) Vitamins

B) Minerals

C) Hormones

D) Both A and B

Explanation:

Co-enzymes can be derived from both vitamins and minerals:

From Vitamins:

Many B vitamins serve as precursors to coenzymes (e.g., thiamine → thiamine pyrophosphate, riboflavin → FAD, niacin → NAD+)
Vitamin C is involved in certain enzymatic reactions
Some fat-soluble vitamins also contribute to coenzyme formation

From Minerals:

Metal ions like magnesium, zinc, iron, copper, and manganese function as cofactors in enzymatic reactions
These mineral cofactors are essential for the proper functioning of many enzymes

74 / 97

74. An enzyme without its cofactor is called:

A) Active site

B) Co-enzyme

C) Prosthetic group

D) Apoenzyme

Explanation:

Apoenzyme = inactive protein part alone.
Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor (coenzyme or metal ion).
Active site is the catalytic pocket not the whole enzyme.

75 / 97

75. The covalent bond between glucose and fructose is called:

A) Glycosidic bond

B) Peptide bond

C) Ester bond

D) Hydrogen bond

Explanation:

Sucrose is glucose + fructose linked by a glycosidic bond.
Peptide bonds join amino acids
ester bonds join acids and alcohols in lipids
hydrogen bond is noncovalent.

76 / 97

76. All of these are disaccharides except:

A) Maltose

B) Lactose

C) Sucrose

D) Fructose

Explanation:

Maltose, lactose, and sucrose are all disaccharides.
Fructose is a monosaccharide (single sugar unit).

77 / 97

77. The synthesis of glycogen is known as:smal

A) Gluconeogenesis

B) Glycogenolysis

C) Glycolysis

D) Glycogenesis

Explanation:

Glycogenesis builds glycogen from glucose units.
Glycogenolysis breaks glycogen down
glycolysis breaks glucose to pyruvate
gluconeogenesis makes glucose from non-carbs.

78 / 97

78. Which one is the “drinking” process of the cell?

A) Exocytosis

B) Chloroplast

C) Pinocytosis

D) Phagocytosis

Explanation:

Pinocytosis is uptake of extracellular fluid in small vesicles (“cell drinking”).

Phagocytosis is ingestion of large particles (“cell eating”).
Exocytosis releases contents out of the cell; chloroplast is an organelle.

79 / 97

79. Damage to cerebellum as a result of head injury will lead to:

A) Poor coordination of movements

B) Irregular heartbeat

C) Lack of temperature control

D) Inability to recognize visual stimuli

Explanation:

The cerebellum coordinates balance, posture, and fine motor activity.
Lesions cause ataxia, intention tremor, and dysmetria poorly coordinated movements.
Temperature control and visual recognition are mediated by other brain regions.

80 / 97

80. Two brothers had different blood groups: one A and the other B. What can be concluded about their parents’ blood-group genotypes?

A) Both of the parents must be heterozygous

B) Both of the parents must be homozygous

C) One parent (at least) must be heterozygous

D) One parent (at least) must be homozygous

Explanation:

A and B siblings can arise from IAi × IBi (both heterozygous) or
IAIB × ii (AB × O).
In all valid crosses, at least one parent carries two different alleles (heterozygous).
Both-homozygous parents cannot produce both A and B children together.

81 / 97

81. Which statement about the ulna is correct?

A) It fits into a notch on the radius to form the elbow joint

B) It forms a hinge joint with the humerus at the shoulder

C) It has a projection to which an extensor muscle is attached

D) It links the radius to the scapula

Explanation:

The ulna’s olecranon process provides attachment for the triceps (a major extensor).
The elbow hinge joint is between humerus and ulna at the elbow, not at the shoulder.
It neither forms the shoulder joint nor links to the scapula.

82 / 97

82. After eating, the pH of the mouth decreases. Which statement explains this decrease?

A) Bacteria release acids

B) Enzymes in saliva release acids

C) Salivary glands release acids

D) Sensory neurons in the tongue release acids

Explanation:

Oral bacteria ferment sugars and produce lactic and other acids.
These acids lower the pH around teeth after meals.

83 / 97

83. Blood from the ileum is carried in the hepatic portal vein to the liver. Why is this an advantage to the body?

A) Amino acids can be converted to urea before they enter the general circulation

B) Excess glucose can be converted to glycogen for storage and not excreted

C) It ensures that fat products pass through the liver before they reach the heart

D) Toxic materials can be destroyed before they reach any body cells

Explanation:

Portal flow routes absorbed substances first to the liver for detoxification.
Harmful chemicals and drugs can be inactivated before systemic circulation.

84 / 97

84. The main role of centrioles in animal cells is

A) Photosynthesis

B) Detoxification

C) Formation of spindle fibers during mitosis

D) Protein modification

Explanation:

Centrioles organize microtubules and form the mitotic spindle.
The spindle separates chromosomes equally to daughter cells.
Photosynthesis, detoxification, and protein modification are not centriole functions.

85 / 97

85. What are the indirect effects of a rise in heart rate for an athlete during a 200 m race?

A) To increase digestion of carbohydrates

B) To increase ventilation of the lungs with fresh air

C) To reduce the need for anaerobic respiration

D) To reduce the need for sweating to cool the body

Explanation:

A higher heart rate speeds circulation, rapidly delivering CO₂/H⁺ to respiratory centers.
This feedback stimulates deeper, faster breathing, bringing in more O₂ and expelling CO₂.
Digestion is down-regulated; sweating need increases, and anaerobic respiration still occurs in a sprint.

86 / 97

86. How does anaerobic respiration in muscle cells cause a reduction in blood pH?

A) Carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood

B) Ethanol from cell respiration diffuses into the blood

C) Lactic acid diffuses into the blood

D) Oxygen is removed from the blood

Explanation:

During intense exercise, muscles shift to anaerobic glycolysis
pyruvate is converted to lactate.
Lactate leaves the muscle with H+; this lactic acid load enters the bloodstream and lowers pH.
Humans don’t make ethanol in muscle, CO₂/oxygen changes don’t acidify blood like lactic acid does.

87 / 97

87. Which classification system is based on genome type and replication strategy?

A) ICTV

B) Baltimore

C) Linnaean

D) Gram stain

Explanation:

The Baltimore system classifies viruses by genome type (DNA/RNA; single/double; positive/negative sense).
It also uses their replication strategy, e.g., how they make mRNA and whether they use reverse transcriptase.

88 / 97

88. The excited state which persists for unusually longer period of time is called:

A) Ground state

B) Ionized state

C) Metastable state

D) Ordinary excited state

Explanation:

A metastable state is an excited level with an abnormally long lifetime.
Transitions from it are forbidden or less probable, so decay is slow.

89 / 97

89. A train runs at 90 km/h. It crosses a pole in 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?

A) 450 m

B) 500 m

C) 520 m

D) 600 m

Explanation:

speed = 90 km/h
time to cross a pole = 20 s.
Convert speed: 90 km/h
= 90×1000/3600
= 25 m/s.
Train length = speed × time = 25 × 20 = 500 m.
crossing a pole means the distance covered equals the train’s own length.

90 / 97

90. What is the term for a sentence that expresses strong emotion or surprise?

A) Statement

B) Question

C) Exclamation

D) Imperative

Explanation:

An exclamatory sentence conveys strong feeling or shock.
It often ends with an exclamation mark (!)

91 / 97

91. What is a figure of speech in which two unlike things are compared using “like” or “as”?

A) Metaphor

B) Simile

C) Personification

D) Hyperbole

Explanation:

A simile makes an explicit comparison using “like” or “as.”
Example: “Brave as a lion,” “floats like a feather.”

92 / 97

92. The species which are becoming near to extinction are called:

A) Wild

B) Endangered

C) Threatened

D) Vanished

Explanation:

“Endangered” means at very high risk of extinction in the near future.
“Threatened” is a broader category that may include “vulnerable” and “endangered.”
“Vanished” would mean already extinct; “wild” is unrelated to risk status.

93 / 97

93. What is the name for a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does not express a complete thought?

A) Phrase

B) Clause

C) Sentence

D) Paragraph

Explanation:

A clause has a subject + verb; a dependent clause is incomplete in meaning.

A phrase lacks a full subject–verb unit; a sentence expresses a complete thought.

Therefore the described group is a clause.

94 / 97

94. What is the term for a sentence that gives a command or makes a request?

A) Statement

B) Question

C) Exclamation

D) Imperative

Explanation:

Commands or requests are imperative sentences.

They use the base verb and often have an implied subject “you.”

95 / 97

95. Which option completes the analogy?

Book : Knowledge :: Weapon : ?

A) War

B) Soldier

C) Power

D) Defense

Explanation:

A book is a tool used to gain knowledge.

A weapon is a tool used to provide protection.

So the parallel relation is Weapon : Defense.

96 / 97

96. In a certain code language: TRUTH = WUXWK, then LIE = ?

A) OLG

B) OLH

C) OLK

D) OKH

Explanation:

each letter is shifted +3 in the alphabet
T→W
R→U
U→X
T→W
H→K

Apply +3 to L I E:
L→O
I→L
E→H

So LIE → OLH

97 / 97

97. If 5 cats catch 5 mice in 5 minutes, how many cats are needed to catch 100 mice in 100 minutes?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 20

D) 1

Explanation:

5 cats catches 5 mice in 5 min so:
1 cat catches 1 mouse in 5 min.

In 100 min, 1 cat catches 100/5 = 20 mice.

Cats needed for 100 mice = 100/20 = 5.

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1 / 97

1. Which of the following orbitals has a dumbbell shape?

A) s

B) p

C) d

D) f

Explanation:

p orbitals have two lobes with a nodal plane through the nucleus classic “dumbbell” shape aligned along x, y, or z axes. This shape reflects their angular node pattern (l = 1).

2 / 97

2. A compound is 40.0% C, 6.7% H and 53.3% O by mass. Relative molecular mass is between 55 and 65. What is the molecular formula?

A) CH₂O

B) C₂H₄O

C) C₂H₄O₂

D) C₂H₂O₂

Explanation:

Given: 40.0% C, 6.7% H, 53.3% O; Relative molecular mass (Mr) is between 55 and 65.

Convert % to moles (assume 100 g sample)

C: 40.0 g ÷ 12.0 = 3.33 mol
H: 6.7 g ÷ 1.0 = 6.7 mol
O: 53.3 g ÷ 16.0 = 3.33 mol

Simplest whole-number ratio
Divide by the smallest (≈3.33):

C: 3.33/3.33 ≈ 1
H: 6.7/3.33 ≈ 2
O: 3.33/3.33 ≈ 1
Empirical formula = CH₂O.

Empirical molar mass:
M(CH₂O) = 12 + 2(1) + 16 = 30 g/mol.
Use the given Mr range (55–65):
n = (molecular mass)/(empirical mass) ≈ 60/30 = 2
Molecular formula = (CH₂O)×2 = C₂H₄O₂.

3 / 97

3. Which sample contains the most atoms?

A) 0.5 moles of water (H₂O)

B) 1.0 moles of carbon dioxide (CO₂)

C) 1.0 moles of methane (CH₄)

D) 2.0 moles of hydrogen chloride (HCl)

Explanation:

Number of atoms = moles × atoms per molecule.
H₂O: 0.5×3 = 1.5 mol atoms
CO₂: 1.0×3 = 3
CH₄: 1.0×5 = 5
HCl: 2.0×2 = 4.
Thus methane gives the largest total atoms.

4 / 97

4. Electronic configuration of K is

A) [Ar] 4s²

B) [Ar] 4s¹

C) [Kr] 4s¹

D) [He] 4s¹

Explanation:

Potassium (Z = 19) fills up to argon ([Ar] = 18) and then places the 19th electron in 4s.
Full configuration: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹
condensed as [Ar] 4s¹.

5 / 97

5. How much % of calcium is in calcium carbonate?

A) 80%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 20%

Explanation:

M(CaCO3) = 40.1 + 12.0 + 3×16.0 = 100.1 g mol⁻¹.
%Ca = 40.1/100.1 × 100 = 40%.

6 / 97

6. The reaction whose rate does not depend on the concentration terms of the reactants involved in the rate expression is the

A) Not possible

B) Zero order reaction

C) First order reaction

D) Second order reaction

Explanation:

In zero-order kinetics, rate = k, independent of reactant concentrations . The rate stays constant until a limiting reagent or condition changes.

7 / 97

7. In many reactions reactants pass through intermediates before products form. The rate at which product is produced depends on the

A) Fastest step

B) Slowest step

C) Intermediate step

D) First step

Explanation:

In a multistep mechanism, the rate-determining step is the slowest one. It acts as a bottleneck that limits the overall rate, regardless of faster steps before or after it.

8 / 97

8. If molar concentration of a reactant “A” is one, then rate of the reaction of “A” will be

A) Greater than rate constant

B) Less than rate constant

C) Equal to rate constant

D) Zero

Explanation:

For a general rate law rate = k[A]^n.
When [A] = 1 mol dm⁻³
rate = k × 1ⁿ = k.
This holds irrespective of the order n, so the numerical value of the rate equals the rate constant.

9 / 97

9. Equilibrium constant expression in non-aqueous medium can be applied to

A) An aqueous solution of sucrose

B) An aqueous solution of table salt

C) An aqueous solution of fructose

D) A solution of kerosene

Explanation:

10 / 97

10. Buffer is a solution which

A) Has constant pH

B) Resists change in its pH

C) Consists of a strong acid and a strong base

D) Contains salts of strong acids and strong bases

Explanation:

11 / 97

11. If one mole of gaseous hydrogen is mixed with one mole of gaseous iodine in an empty container then with the passage of time rate of

A) The forward reaction increases

B) Both forward and reverse reaction remains unaffected

C) The reverse reaction decreases

D) The forward reaction decreases

Explanation:

12 / 97

12. “X” is an imaginary plane that divides a crystal into two equal halves that are exact mirror images. The proper term for “X” is

A) Axis of rotation

B) Plane of symmetry

C) Center of symmetry

D) Axis of inversion

13 / 97

13. All of the following are covalent network crystals except

A) SiO2

B) Graphite

C) S8

D) Diamond

14 / 97

14. Crystals in which lattice points are occupied by metal ions are

A) Ionic crystals

B) Covalent crystals

C) Molecular crystals

D) Metallic crystals

15 / 97

15. All of the following are liquid crystals except

A) Soap solution

B) DNA

C) Cholesteryl formate

D) Engine oil

Explanation:

16 / 97

16. Methyl amine and hydrogen peroxide are liquids due to

A) Dipole–dipole forces

B) Dispersion forces

C) Hydrogen bonding

D) Dipole–dipole forces and dispersion forces

Explanation:

Both CH₃NH₂ and H₂O₂ contain N–H or O–H groups that can donate and accept H-bonds.
Strong hydrogen bonding greatly raises boiling points, so they are liquids at room temperature.

17 / 97

17. Equal moles of O₂, Cl₂, and H₂ are enclosed at room temperature. If the container leaks accidentally then

A) H₂ will effuse out first

B) Cl₂ will effuse out last

C) O₂ will effuse out second

D) All will effuse out at the same time but with different rates

Explanation:

Graham’s law:
rate ∝ 1/√M.
Order by molar mass: H₂ (2) > O₂ (32) > Cl₂ (71).
Thus H₂ escapes fastest, O₂ next, and Cl₂ slowest.

18 / 97

18. Which element has the strongest Van der Waals attraction between its molecules?

A) Hydrogen

B) Oxygen

C) Chlorine

D) Nitrogen

Explanation:

19 / 97

19. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at

A) High temperature and low pressure

B) Low temperature and high pressure

C) High temperature and high pressure

D) Low temperature and low pressure

Explanation:

Real gases deviate from ideal when molecules are close and intermolecular forces matter
i.e., low T (reduced KE) and high P (crowding).
Under high T and low P, gases approach ideality.

20 / 97

20. A container with a porous wall has 1 mole each of He, H₂, N₂, and O₂. Which gas will take the least time to diffuse out?

A) He

B) H₂

C) N₂

D) O₂

Explanation:

By Graham’s law

rate ∝ 1/√M.
M(H₂)=2 is smallest, so H₂ diffuses fastest and exits in the least time.
He (4), N₂ (28), O₂ (32) are heavier and diffuse more slowly.

21 / 97

21. If maximum value of principal quantum number for an atom is 4, the total number of electrons in the atom will be

A) 32

B) 60

C) 18

D) 28

Explanation:

Capacity of the n-th shell is 2n².
Total up to n = 4
putting in formula
2(1²+2²+3²+4²) = 2(1+4+9+16) = 60 electrons.
So an atom filling shells up to n = 4 can hold 60 electrons.

22 / 97

22. Total charge on an electron is approximately

A) −1.6×10⁻²⁰ C

B) −1.6×10⁻¹⁷ C

C) −3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C

D) −1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C

Explanation:

The elementary charge has magnitude 1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C.
An electron carries this charge with a negative sign due to its polarity.

23 / 97

23. One gram atom of chlorine is equal to

A) One mole of chlorine atoms

B) 35.5 grams of chlorine

C) 71 grams

D) Both a & b

Explanation:

A gram-atom equals the atomic mass in grams and also equals 1 mole of atoms.

24 / 97

24. One atom of sodium is

A) 23 g

B) NA moles

C) Positively charged

D) 1/NA moles

Explanation:

1 mole contains NA atoms (Avogadro’s number), so
1 atom = 1/NA mole.

25 / 97

25. The magnetic force Fm on a charge q moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B is

A) Fm = q (v × B)

B) Fm = q v² × B

C) Fm = q v⁴ × B

D) F = qE + q (v × B)

Explanation:

Magnetic force on a moving charge is
Fₘ = q (v × B)

This force depends on the cross product, so it acts perpendicular to both v and B.
Magnitude is
Fₘ = q v B sinθ

Option D is the total (Lorentz) force including electric field:
F = qE + q (v × B)

26 / 97

26. The resistivity ρ of copper in Ω·m is

A) 1.52×10⁻⁸

B) 1.54×10⁻⁸

C) 5.00×10⁻⁸

D) None of these

Explanation:

Resistivity of copper at room temperature (about 20 °C) is approximately

ρ(copper) ≈ 1.68×10⁻⁸ Ω·m

27 / 97

27. In a transistor, the emitter–base junction is

A) Reverse biased

B) Forward biased

C) Neutral

D) None of these

Explanation:

28 / 97

28. Two metallic conductors have the same resistivity. These conductors can be differentiated by the values of their

A) Temperature coefficient

B) Resistance

C) Conductance

D) Conductivity

Explanation:

29 / 97

29. The negative gradient of electric potential is also called:

A) Potential energy

B) Electric field intensity

C) Electric potential energy

D) Electron volt

Explanation:

Electric field is the negative gradient of potential:
E = −∇V
This means the field points toward decreasing potential and its magnitude is the spatial rate of change of V.
Units are V/m (or N/C).

30 / 97

30. If the temperature of the source (hot reservoir) increases, the efficiency of a Carnot engine:

A) Increases

B) Decreases

C) Remain constant

D) None of the above

Explanation:

31 / 97

31. The temperature scale independent of the nature of the working substance is:

A) Celsius

B) Fahrenheit

C) Centigrade

D) Thermodynamic scale

Explanation:

The thermodynamic (Kelvin) scale is defined from the Carnot cycle/Second Law and is universal, not tied to properties of a specific substance like water.

32 / 97

32. For all irreversible processes, the entropy of the system:

A) Decreases

B) Remain constant

C) Zero

D) Increases

Explanation:

By the Second Law, entropy of an isolated system increases for irreversible changes and is constant only for reversible ones. It never decreases.

33 / 97

33. A 30 cm long string with one end clamped and the other free vibrates in its second harmonic. The wavelength of the constituent travelling waves is:

A) 10 cm

B) 30 cm

C) 40 cm

D) 120 cm

Explanation:

For a string with one end clamped (node) and the other end free (antinode), the allowed standing wave condition is

L = (2n − 1) λ/4

Second harmonic means n = 2, so

L = 3λ/4
λ = 4L/3

Given L = 30 cm

λ = 4(30)/3 = 40 cm

34 / 97

34. What is correct for all transverse waves?

A) They will involve oscillation of the atoms

B) They can all be polarized

C) They can travel through a vacuum

D) Both (a) & (c) are correct

Explanation:

35 / 97

35. When sound waves move from one medium to another, the quantity that remains the same is:

A) Wavelength

B) Frequency

C) Speed

D) Intensity

Explanation:

The source fixes the frequency; it doesn’t change at a boundary.
Since ,
a change in speed causes the wavelength to change.
Intensity usually changes due to reflection/absorption.

36 / 97

36. Which of the following type of force do no work?

A) Elastic force

B) Frictional force

C) Gravitational force

D) Centripetal force

Explanation:

37 / 97

37. When a body moves against the force of friction on a horizontal plane, the work done by the body is:

A) Negative

B) Positive

C) Zero

D) Maximum and positive

Explanation:

38 / 97

38. The distance between a node and the adjacent antinode is

A) λ/4

B) λ/2

C) λ

D) 2λ

Explanation:

Adjacent nodes are λ/2 apart, antinodes are also λ/2 apart.
A node lies midway between two antinodes
node–antinode spacing = (λ/2)/2
= λ/4.

39 / 97

39. When two waves, same frequency and amplitude, travel in opposite directions and meet, the pattern formed is

A) Transverse waves

B) Longitudinal waves

C) Stationary (standing) waves

D) Electromagnetic waves

Explanation:

Superposition creates nodes (zero displacement) and antinodes (max displacement).
Energy doesn’t travel along the medium the pattern oscillates in place

40 / 97

40. A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is

A) Circular

B) Two straight segments

C) Hyperbolic

D) Parabolic

Explanation:

Motion is x = v₀ t (uniform) and y = ½ g t² (free fall).
Eliminating t yields y ∝ x²
a parabola (projectile motion with no air resistance).

41 / 97

41. A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is

A) Zero

B) Constant but not zero

C) Increasing uniformly with time

D) Both (a) and (c)

Explanation:

From F = m a
a = F/m.
A constant non-zero F gives constant a.
Zero net force gives zero acceleration
a time-increasing force gives non-uniform acceleration.

42 / 97

42. The value of Boltzmann constant is

A) 6.022×10²³ J K^-1

B) 1.38×10^-23 J K^-1

C) 1.38×10^-24 J K^-1

D) 8.314 J K^-1

Explanation:

kB = 1.380649×10^-23 J/K (SI exact).
6.022×10²³ is Avogadro’s number
8.314 is the gas constant (per mol·K).
10^-24 J/K is incorrect by a factor of 10.

43 / 97

43. The time rate of change of magnetic flux has the exact dimensions as that of

A) Current

B) Resistance

C) Magnetic induction

D) Potential difference

Explanation:

Faraday’s law gives induced emf (ε) as
ε = − dΦ/dt
So dΦ/dt has the same dimensions as emf, and emf is potential difference.

Dimension check:
Magnetic flux
Φ = B A

Magnetic field
[B] = tesla = N/(A m)

[N] = kg m s⁻²
So
[B] = (kg m s⁻²)/(A m)
[B] = kg s⁻² A⁻¹

Now flux:
[Φ] = [B][A]
[Φ] = (kg s⁻² A⁻¹)(m²)
[Φ] = kg m² s⁻² A⁻¹

Rate of change:
[dΦ/dt] = (kg m² s⁻² A⁻¹)/s
[dΦ/dt] = kg m² s⁻³ A⁻¹

Volt (potential difference) also has:
[V] = kg m² s⁻³ A⁻¹

So dΦ/dt matches potential difference.

44 / 97

44. The dimension of work is like the dimensions of

A) Impulse

B) Torque

C) Power

D) Angular momentum

Explanation:

Work = Force × distance
dimensions: M L² T^-2.
Torque = Force × lever arm
same M L² T^-2.
why other options are wrong:
Impulse (M L T^-1)
angular momentum (M L² T^-1)
power is M L² T^-3.

45 / 97

45. Which part of the brain controls voluntary movements and balance?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Cerebrum

C) Cerebellum

D) Hypothalamus

Explanation:

46 / 97

46. Endometriosis will cause infertility in:

A) Male

B) Female

C) Both male & female

D) None of the above

Explanation:

Endometriosis is ectopic endometrial tissue in women, leading to inflammation and adhesions.
It can impair tubal function, ovulation, or implantation, reducing fertility.
It is not a male condition.

47 / 97

47. Compared with the few days before ovulation, which hormone is released in increased quantities three days after ovulation?

A) FSH

B) LH

C) Oestrogen

D) Progesterone

Explanation:

48 / 97

48. Which statement best explains why hemophilia is more common in males than in females?

A) It is caused by a dominant autosomal gene

B) It is a Y-linked disorder

C) It is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait

D) It is more often acquired later in life due to liver disease

Explanation:

49 / 97

49. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for providing long-term immunity after a vaccination?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgM

D) IgE

Explanation:

50 / 97

50. What is the causative organism of syphilis?

A) Treponema pallidum

B) Micoplasma pneumoniae

C) Plasmodium

D) Vibrio cholera

Explanation:

Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Mycoplasma causes atypical pneumonia
Plasmodium causes malaria
Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.

51 / 97

51. In a kidney dialysis machine, which substance will not be diffused from the patient’s blood into the dialysis fluid?

A) Protein

B) Salts

C) Urea

D) Water

Explanation:

52 / 97

52. In the human heart, why is the wall of the right ventricle thicker than the wall of the right atrium?

A) The chambers have different oxygen concentrations

B) The right atrium must pump blood all the way around the body

C) The right ventricle must exert a greater force than the right atrium

D) The right ventricle receives more blood than the right atrium

Explanation:

53 / 97

53. The genotype for the height of an organism is written as Tt. What conclusion may be drawn?

A) The allele for height has at least two different genes

B) There are at least two different alleles of the gene for height

C) There are two different genes for height, each having a single allele

D) There is one allele for height with two different forms

Explanation:

54 / 97

54. Which statement about chromosome is correct?

A) Chromosomes are long DNA molecules called genes which are divided into sections

B) Chromosomes include a long molecule of DNA divided into sections called genes

C) Chromosomes include genes which are divided into sections called DNA molecules

D) Genes include long DNA molecules called chromosomes

Explanation:

A chromosome is one long DNA molecule (with proteins) organized into many genes.
Genes are segments of DNA that code for RNAs/proteins.
Options a, c, and d invert this relationship

55 / 97

55. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the breakdown of two molecules of glucose in aerobic respiration?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 12

Explanation:

Per one glucose: Link reaction (2 CO₂) + Krebs cycle (4 CO₂) = 6 CO₂.
For two glucose molecules: 2×6=12 CO₂ in total.
Glycolysis itself releases no CO₂.

56 / 97

56. Which statement is correct for all viruses but not for all bacteria and fungi?

A) Most of the cell is cytoplasm

B) Their outer layer is cellulose

C) They are all parasites

D) They have a nucleus containing DNA or RNA

57 / 97

57. Which structures are all involved in controlling human body temperature?

A) Blood vessels near the skin surface, the cerebellum and sweat glands

B) Blood vessels near the skin surface, the hypothalamus and skeletal muscles

C) Kidneys, the cerebellum and sweat glands

D) Kidneys, the hypothalamus and skeletal muscles

Explanation:

58 / 97

58. Insulin is manufactured commercially using genetic engineering. Which organism is used to produce large quantities of insulin?

A) Viruses

B) Bacteria

C) Fungi

D) Animals

Explanation:

Recombinant human insulin is produced by inserting the insulin gene into bacteria (e.g., E. coli).
The bacteria express the protein at scale, which is purified for medical use.

59 / 97

59. Insulin is secreted by:

A) Alpha cells

B) Beta cells

C) Delta cells

D) Acinar cells

Explanation:

60 / 97

60. Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones of:

A) Steroid nature

B) Amino acid nature

C) Protein nature

D) Polypeptide nature

Explanation:

61 / 97

61. The type of nerve impulse in non-myelinated neuron will be:

A) Continuous

B) Saltatory

C) Electrical

D) All of them

Explanation:

62 / 97

62. A wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of a neuron, from one end to the other is:

A) Reflex arc

B) Reflex action

C) Nerve impulse

D) Influx

Explanation:

63 / 97

63. The bronchioles are located at the end of the bronchi and terminate in the:

A) Lungs

B) Alveoli

C) Alveolar sac

D) Both B and C

Explanation:

The bronchioles are the smallest airways in the lungs. They branch out from the bronchi and end in alveolar structures.

Alveoli (B) are the tiny air sacs where gas exchange takes place.

Alveolar sacs (C) are clusters of alveoli at the end of the bronchioles.

So, bronchioles do not directly terminate in the lungs as a whole (A). Instead, they lead into alveolar sacs, which contain the alveoli.

64 / 97

64. A respiratory surface must be permeable, thin, have large surface area and a good supply of:

A) Gases

B) Lymph

C) Blood

D) All of them

Explanation:

65 / 97

65. The respiratory system gives the basic ability to:

A) Smell

B) Transport electrolytes

C) Intake of Oxygen

D) Excrete Creatinine

Explanation:

66 / 97

66. All of the following are bacillus (rod-shaped) bacteria except:

A) Pseudomonas

B) Clostridium

C) Salmonella

D) Streptococcus

Explanation:

Pseudomonas, Clostridium, and Salmonella are rod-shaped.
Streptococcus are spherical (cocci) arranged in chains.

67 / 97

67. Which of the following causes tuberculosis and leprosy?

A) Streptomyces

B) Actinomycetes

C) Mycoplasma

D) None of these

Explanation:

68 / 97

68. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by the oro-fecal route?

A) Hepatitis A

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis C

D) None of the above

Explanation:

HAV spreads via contaminated food/water (fecal-oral).
HBV and HCV are transmitted mainly via blood, sexual contact, and perinatally.
Hepatitis E is also fecal-oral but is not listed here.

69 / 97

69. All of the following are viruses except:

A) SARS

B) FIV

C) SIV

D) Mycoplasma

Explanation:

Mycoplasma are wall-less bacteria (prokaryotes), not viruses.
SARS is a coronavirus
FIV and SIV are lentiviruses related to HIV.

70 / 97

70. Tobacco mosaic virus is:

A) Spherical

B) Tad-pole like

C) Rod shape

D) Polyhedral

Explanation:

TMV particles are rigid, helical rods with RNA wrapped in a protein coat. They are neither spherical nor polyhedral and have no tail like bacteriophages.

71 / 97

71. The first stable product of dark reaction is a ____-carbon molecule:

A) 6

B) 4

C) 3

D) 5

Explanation:

72 / 97

72. mRNA’s primary function is to

A) bring amino acids to ribosomes

B) replicate DNA

C) transmit genetic code from DNA to ribosomes

D) form the ribosomal structure

Explanation:

73 / 97

73. Co-enzymes are derived from:

A) Vitamins

B) Minerals

C) Hormones

D) Both A and B

Explanation:

Co-enzymes can be derived from both vitamins and minerals:

From Vitamins:

Many B vitamins serve as precursors to coenzymes (e.g., thiamine → thiamine pyrophosphate, riboflavin → FAD, niacin → NAD+)
Vitamin C is involved in certain enzymatic reactions
Some fat-soluble vitamins also contribute to coenzyme formation

From Minerals:

Metal ions like magnesium, zinc, iron, copper, and manganese function as cofactors in enzymatic reactions
These mineral cofactors are essential for the proper functioning of many enzymes

74 / 97

74. An enzyme without its cofactor is called:

A) Active site

B) Co-enzyme

C) Prosthetic group

D) Apoenzyme

Explanation:

Apoenzyme = inactive protein part alone.
Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor (coenzyme or metal ion).
Active site is the catalytic pocket not the whole enzyme.

75 / 97

75. The covalent bond between glucose and fructose is called:

A) Glycosidic bond

B) Peptide bond

C) Ester bond

D) Hydrogen bond

Explanation:

Sucrose is glucose + fructose linked by a glycosidic bond.
Peptide bonds join amino acids
ester bonds join acids and alcohols in lipids
hydrogen bond is noncovalent.

76 / 97

76. All of these are disaccharides except:

A) Maltose

B) Lactose

C) Sucrose

D) Fructose

Explanation:

Maltose, lactose, and sucrose are all disaccharides.
Fructose is a monosaccharide (single sugar unit).

77 / 97

77. The synthesis of glycogen is known as:smal

A) Gluconeogenesis

B) Glycogenolysis

C) Glycolysis

D) Glycogenesis

Explanation:

Glycogenesis builds glycogen from glucose units.
Glycogenolysis breaks glycogen down
glycolysis breaks glucose to pyruvate
gluconeogenesis makes glucose from non-carbs.

78 / 97

78. Which one is the “drinking” process of the cell?

A) Exocytosis

B) Chloroplast

C) Pinocytosis

D) Phagocytosis

Explanation:

Pinocytosis is uptake of extracellular fluid in small vesicles (“cell drinking”).

Phagocytosis is ingestion of large particles (“cell eating”).
Exocytosis releases contents out of the cell; chloroplast is an organelle.

79 / 97

79. Damage to cerebellum as a result of head injury will lead to:

A) Poor coordination of movements

B) Irregular heartbeat

C) Lack of temperature control

D) Inability to recognize visual stimuli

Explanation:

80 / 97

80. Two brothers had different blood groups: one A and the other B. What can be concluded about their parents’ blood-group genotypes?

A) Both of the parents must be heterozygous

B) Both of the parents must be homozygous

C) One parent (at least) must be heterozygous

D) One parent (at least) must be homozygous

Explanation:

81 / 97

81. Which statement about the ulna is correct?

A) It fits into a notch on the radius to form the elbow joint

B) It forms a hinge joint with the humerus at the shoulder

C) It has a projection to which an extensor muscle is attached

D) It links the radius to the scapula

Explanation:

82 / 97

82. After eating, the pH of the mouth decreases. Which statement explains this decrease?

A) Bacteria release acids

B) Enzymes in saliva release acids

C) Salivary glands release acids

D) Sensory neurons in the tongue release acids

Explanation:

Oral bacteria ferment sugars and produce lactic and other acids.
These acids lower the pH around teeth after meals.

83 / 97

83. Blood from the ileum is carried in the hepatic portal vein to the liver. Why is this an advantage to the body?

A) Amino acids can be converted to urea before they enter the general circulation

B) Excess glucose can be converted to glycogen for storage and not excreted

C) It ensures that fat products pass through the liver before they reach the heart

D) Toxic materials can be destroyed before they reach any body cells

Explanation:

Portal flow routes absorbed substances first to the liver for detoxification.
Harmful chemicals and drugs can be inactivated before systemic circulation.

84 / 97

84. The main role of centrioles in animal cells is

A) Photosynthesis

B) Detoxification

C) Formation of spindle fibers during mitosis

D) Protein modification

Explanation:

85 / 97

85. What are the indirect effects of a rise in heart rate for an athlete during a 200 m race?

A) To increase digestion of carbohydrates

B) To increase ventilation of the lungs with fresh air

C) To reduce the need for anaerobic respiration

D) To reduce the need for sweating to cool the body

Explanation:

86 / 97

86. How does anaerobic respiration in muscle cells cause a reduction in blood pH?

A) Carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood

B) Ethanol from cell respiration diffuses into the blood

C) Lactic acid diffuses into the blood

D) Oxygen is removed from the blood

Explanation:

87 / 97

87. Which classification system is based on genome type and replication strategy?

A) ICTV

B) Baltimore

C) Linnaean

D) Gram stain

Explanation:

88 / 97

88. The excited state which persists for unusually longer period of time is called:

A) Ground state

B) Ionized state

C) Metastable state

D) Ordinary excited state

Explanation:

A metastable state is an excited level with an abnormally long lifetime.
Transitions from it are forbidden or less probable, so decay is slow.

89 / 97

89. A train runs at 90 km/h. It crosses a pole in 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?

A) 450 m

B) 500 m

C) 520 m

D) 600 m

Explanation:

90 / 97

90. What is the term for a sentence that expresses strong emotion or surprise?

A) Statement

B) Question

C) Exclamation

D) Imperative

Explanation:

An exclamatory sentence conveys strong feeling or shock.
It often ends with an exclamation mark (!)

91 / 97

91. What is a figure of speech in which two unlike things are compared using “like” or “as”?

A) Metaphor

B) Simile

C) Personification

D) Hyperbole

Explanation:

A simile makes an explicit comparison using “like” or “as.”
Example: “Brave as a lion,” “floats like a feather.”

92 / 97

92. The species which are becoming near to extinction are called:

A) Wild

B) Endangered

C) Threatened

D) Vanished

Explanation:

93 / 97

93. What is the name for a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does not express a complete thought?

A) Phrase

B) Clause

C) Sentence

D) Paragraph

Explanation:

A clause has a subject + verb; a dependent clause is incomplete in meaning.

A phrase lacks a full subject–verb unit; a sentence expresses a complete thought.

Therefore the described group is a clause.

94 / 97

94. What is the term for a sentence that gives a command or makes a request?

A) Statement

B) Question

C) Exclamation

D) Imperative

Explanation:

Commands or requests are imperative sentences.

They use the base verb and often have an implied subject “you.”

95 / 97

95. Which option completes the analogy?

Book : Knowledge :: Weapon : ?

A) War

B) Soldier

C) Power

D) Defense

Explanation:

A book is a tool used to gain knowledge.

A weapon is a tool used to provide protection.

So the parallel relation is Weapon : Defense.

96 / 97

96. In a certain code language: TRUTH = WUXWK, then LIE = ?

A) OLG

B) OLH

C) OLK

D) OKH

Explanation:

each letter is shifted +3 in the alphabet
T→W
R→U
U→X
T→W
H→K

Apply +3 to L I E:
L→O
I→L
E→H

So LIE → OLH

97 / 97

97. If 5 cats catch 5 mice in 5 minutes, how many cats are needed to catch 100 mice in 100 minutes?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 20

D) 1

Explanation:

5 cats catches 5 mice in 5 min so:
1 cat catches 1 mouse in 5 min.

In 100 min, 1 cat catches 100/5 = 20 mice.

Cats needed for 100 mice = 100/20 = 5.

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1 / 97

1. Which of the following orbitals has a dumbbell shape?

A) s

B) p

C) d

D) f

Explanation:

p orbitals have two lobes with a nodal plane through the nucleus classic “dumbbell” shape aligned along x, y, or z axes. This shape reflects their angular node pattern (l = 1).

2 / 97

2. A compound is 40.0% C, 6.7% H and 53.3% O by mass. Relative molecular mass is between 55 and 65. What is the molecular formula?

A) CH₂O

B) C₂H₄O

C) C₂H₄O₂

D) C₂H₂O₂

Explanation:

Given: 40.0% C, 6.7% H, 53.3% O; Relative molecular mass (Mr) is between 55 and 65.

Convert % to moles (assume 100 g sample)

C: 40.0 g ÷ 12.0 = 3.33 mol
H: 6.7 g ÷ 1.0 = 6.7 mol
O: 53.3 g ÷ 16.0 = 3.33 mol

Simplest whole-number ratio
Divide by the smallest (≈3.33):

C: 3.33/3.33 ≈ 1
H: 6.7/3.33 ≈ 2
O: 3.33/3.33 ≈ 1
Empirical formula = CH₂O.

Empirical molar mass:
M(CH₂O) = 12 + 2(1) + 16 = 30 g/mol.
Use the given Mr range (55–65):
n = (molecular mass)/(empirical mass) ≈ 60/30 = 2
Molecular formula = (CH₂O)×2 = C₂H₄O₂.

3 / 97

3. Which sample contains the most atoms?

A) 0.5 moles of water (H₂O)

B) 1.0 moles of carbon dioxide (CO₂)

C) 1.0 moles of methane (CH₄)

D) 2.0 moles of hydrogen chloride (HCl)

Explanation:

Number of atoms = moles × atoms per molecule.
H₂O: 0.5×3 = 1.5 mol atoms
CO₂: 1.0×3 = 3
CH₄: 1.0×5 = 5
HCl: 2.0×2 = 4.
Thus methane gives the largest total atoms.

4 / 97

4. Electronic configuration of K is

A) [Ar] 4s²

B) [Ar] 4s¹

C) [Kr] 4s¹

D) [He] 4s¹

Explanation:

Potassium (Z = 19) fills up to argon ([Ar] = 18) and then places the 19th electron in 4s.
Full configuration: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹
condensed as [Ar] 4s¹.

5 / 97

5. How much % of calcium is in calcium carbonate?

A) 80%

B) 30%

C) 40%

D) 20%

Explanation:

M(CaCO3) = 40.1 + 12.0 + 3×16.0 = 100.1 g mol⁻¹.
%Ca = 40.1/100.1 × 100 = 40%.

6 / 97

6. The reaction whose rate does not depend on the concentration terms of the reactants involved in the rate expression is the

A) Not possible

B) Zero order reaction

C) First order reaction

D) Second order reaction

Explanation:

In zero-order kinetics, rate = k, independent of reactant concentrations . The rate stays constant until a limiting reagent or condition changes.

7 / 97

7. In many reactions reactants pass through intermediates before products form. The rate at which product is produced depends on the

A) Fastest step

B) Slowest step

C) Intermediate step

D) First step

Explanation:

In a multistep mechanism, the rate-determining step is the slowest one. It acts as a bottleneck that limits the overall rate, regardless of faster steps before or after it.

8 / 97

8. If molar concentration of a reactant “A” is one, then rate of the reaction of “A” will be

A) Greater than rate constant

B) Less than rate constant

C) Equal to rate constant

D) Zero

Explanation:

For a general rate law rate = k[A]^n.
When [A] = 1 mol dm⁻³
rate = k × 1ⁿ = k.
This holds irrespective of the order n, so the numerical value of the rate equals the rate constant.

9 / 97

9. Equilibrium constant expression in non-aqueous medium can be applied to

A) An aqueous solution of sucrose

B) An aqueous solution of table salt

C) An aqueous solution of fructose

D) A solution of kerosene

Explanation:

10 / 97

10. Buffer is a solution which

A) Has constant pH

B) Resists change in its pH

C) Consists of a strong acid and a strong base

D) Contains salts of strong acids and strong bases

Explanation:

11 / 97

11. If one mole of gaseous hydrogen is mixed with one mole of gaseous iodine in an empty container then with the passage of time rate of

A) The forward reaction increases

B) Both forward and reverse reaction remains unaffected

C) The reverse reaction decreases

D) The forward reaction decreases

Explanation:

12 / 97

12. “X” is an imaginary plane that divides a crystal into two equal halves that are exact mirror images. The proper term for “X” is

A) Axis of rotation

B) Plane of symmetry

C) Center of symmetry

D) Axis of inversion

13 / 97

13. All of the following are covalent network crystals except

A) SiO2

B) Graphite

C) S8

D) Diamond

14 / 97

14. Crystals in which lattice points are occupied by metal ions are

A) Ionic crystals

B) Covalent crystals

C) Molecular crystals

D) Metallic crystals

15 / 97

15. All of the following are liquid crystals except

A) Soap solution

B) DNA

C) Cholesteryl formate

D) Engine oil

Explanation:

16 / 97

16. Methyl amine and hydrogen peroxide are liquids due to

A) Dipole–dipole forces

B) Dispersion forces

C) Hydrogen bonding

D) Dipole–dipole forces and dispersion forces

Explanation:

Both CH₃NH₂ and H₂O₂ contain N–H or O–H groups that can donate and accept H-bonds.
Strong hydrogen bonding greatly raises boiling points, so they are liquids at room temperature.

17 / 97

17. Equal moles of O₂, Cl₂, and H₂ are enclosed at room temperature. If the container leaks accidentally then

A) H₂ will effuse out first

B) Cl₂ will effuse out last

C) O₂ will effuse out second

D) All will effuse out at the same time but with different rates

Explanation:

Graham’s law:
rate ∝ 1/√M.
Order by molar mass: H₂ (2) > O₂ (32) > Cl₂ (71).
Thus H₂ escapes fastest, O₂ next, and Cl₂ slowest.

18 / 97

18. Which element has the strongest Van der Waals attraction between its molecules?

A) Hydrogen

B) Oxygen

C) Chlorine

D) Nitrogen

Explanation:

19 / 97

19. The behavior of a gas is non-ideal at

A) High temperature and low pressure

B) Low temperature and high pressure

C) High temperature and high pressure

D) Low temperature and low pressure

Explanation:

Real gases deviate from ideal when molecules are close and intermolecular forces matter
i.e., low T (reduced KE) and high P (crowding).
Under high T and low P, gases approach ideality.

20 / 97

20. A container with a porous wall has 1 mole each of He, H₂, N₂, and O₂. Which gas will take the least time to diffuse out?

A) He

B) H₂

C) N₂

D) O₂

Explanation:

By Graham’s law

rate ∝ 1/√M.
M(H₂)=2 is smallest, so H₂ diffuses fastest and exits in the least time.
He (4), N₂ (28), O₂ (32) are heavier and diffuse more slowly.

21 / 97

21. If maximum value of principal quantum number for an atom is 4, the total number of electrons in the atom will be

A) 32

B) 60

C) 18

D) 28

Explanation:

Capacity of the n-th shell is 2n².
Total up to n = 4
putting in formula
2(1²+2²+3²+4²) = 2(1+4+9+16) = 60 electrons.
So an atom filling shells up to n = 4 can hold 60 electrons.

22 / 97

22. Total charge on an electron is approximately

A) −1.6×10⁻²⁰ C

B) −1.6×10⁻¹⁷ C

C) −3.2×10⁻¹⁹ C

D) −1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C

Explanation:

The elementary charge has magnitude 1.602×10⁻¹⁹ C.
An electron carries this charge with a negative sign due to its polarity.

23 / 97

23. One gram atom of chlorine is equal to

A) One mole of chlorine atoms

B) 35.5 grams of chlorine

C) 71 grams

D) Both a & b

Explanation:

A gram-atom equals the atomic mass in grams and also equals 1 mole of atoms.

24 / 97

24. One atom of sodium is

A) 23 g

B) NA moles

C) Positively charged

D) 1/NA moles

Explanation:

1 mole contains NA atoms (Avogadro’s number), so
1 atom = 1/NA mole.

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25. The magnetic force Fm on a charge q moving with velocity v in a magnetic field B is

A) Fm = q (v × B)

B) Fm = q v² × B

C) Fm = q v⁴ × B

D) F = qE + q (v × B)

Explanation:

Magnetic force on a moving charge is
Fₘ = q (v × B)

This force depends on the cross product, so it acts perpendicular to both v and B.
Magnitude is
Fₘ = q v B sinθ

Option D is the total (Lorentz) force including electric field:
F = qE + q (v × B)

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26. The resistivity ρ of copper in Ω·m is

A) 1.52×10⁻⁸

B) 1.54×10⁻⁸

C) 5.00×10⁻⁸

D) None of these

Explanation:

Resistivity of copper at room temperature (about 20 °C) is approximately

ρ(copper) ≈ 1.68×10⁻⁸ Ω·m

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27. In a transistor, the emitter–base junction is

A) Reverse biased

B) Forward biased

C) Neutral

D) None of these

Explanation:

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28. Two metallic conductors have the same resistivity. These conductors can be differentiated by the values of their

A) Temperature coefficient

B) Resistance

C) Conductance

D) Conductivity

Explanation:

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29. The negative gradient of electric potential is also called:

A) Potential energy

B) Electric field intensity

C) Electric potential energy

D) Electron volt

Explanation:

Electric field is the negative gradient of potential:
E = −∇V
This means the field points toward decreasing potential and its magnitude is the spatial rate of change of V.
Units are V/m (or N/C).

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30. If the temperature of the source (hot reservoir) increases, the efficiency of a Carnot engine:

A) Increases

B) Decreases

C) Remain constant

D) None of the above

Explanation:

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31. The temperature scale independent of the nature of the working substance is:

A) Celsius

B) Fahrenheit

C) Centigrade

D) Thermodynamic scale

Explanation:

The thermodynamic (Kelvin) scale is defined from the Carnot cycle/Second Law and is universal, not tied to properties of a specific substance like water.

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32. For all irreversible processes, the entropy of the system:

A) Decreases

B) Remain constant

C) Zero

D) Increases

Explanation:

By the Second Law, entropy of an isolated system increases for irreversible changes and is constant only for reversible ones. It never decreases.

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33. A 30 cm long string with one end clamped and the other free vibrates in its second harmonic. The wavelength of the constituent travelling waves is:

A) 10 cm

B) 30 cm

C) 40 cm

D) 120 cm

Explanation:

For a string with one end clamped (node) and the other end free (antinode), the allowed standing wave condition is

L = (2n − 1) λ/4

Second harmonic means n = 2, so

L = 3λ/4
λ = 4L/3

Given L = 30 cm

λ = 4(30)/3 = 40 cm

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34. What is correct for all transverse waves?

A) They will involve oscillation of the atoms

B) They can all be polarized

C) They can travel through a vacuum

D) Both (a) & (c) are correct

Explanation:

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35. When sound waves move from one medium to another, the quantity that remains the same is:

A) Wavelength

B) Frequency

C) Speed

D) Intensity

Explanation:

The source fixes the frequency; it doesn’t change at a boundary.
Since ,
a change in speed causes the wavelength to change.
Intensity usually changes due to reflection/absorption.

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36. Which of the following type of force do no work?

A) Elastic force

B) Frictional force

C) Gravitational force

D) Centripetal force

Explanation:

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37. When a body moves against the force of friction on a horizontal plane, the work done by the body is:

A) Negative

B) Positive

C) Zero

D) Maximum and positive

Explanation:

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38. The distance between a node and the adjacent antinode is

A) λ/4

B) λ/2

C) λ

D) 2λ

Explanation:

Adjacent nodes are λ/2 apart, antinodes are also λ/2 apart.
A node lies midway between two antinodes
node–antinode spacing = (λ/2)/2
= λ/4.

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39. When two waves, same frequency and amplitude, travel in opposite directions and meet, the pattern formed is

A) Transverse waves

B) Longitudinal waves

C) Stationary (standing) waves

D) Electromagnetic waves

Explanation:

Superposition creates nodes (zero displacement) and antinodes (max displacement).
Energy doesn’t travel along the medium the pattern oscillates in place

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40. A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is

A) Circular

B) Two straight segments

C) Hyperbolic

D) Parabolic

Explanation:

Motion is x = v₀ t (uniform) and y = ½ g t² (free fall).
Eliminating t yields y ∝ x²
a parabola (projectile motion with no air resistance).

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41. A mass accelerates uniformly when the resultant force acting on it is

A) Zero

B) Constant but not zero

C) Increasing uniformly with time

D) Both (a) and (c)

Explanation:

From F = m a
a = F/m.
A constant non-zero F gives constant a.
Zero net force gives zero acceleration
a time-increasing force gives non-uniform acceleration.

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42. The value of Boltzmann constant is

A) 6.022×10²³ J K^-1

B) 1.38×10^-23 J K^-1

C) 1.38×10^-24 J K^-1

D) 8.314 J K^-1

Explanation:

kB = 1.380649×10^-23 J/K (SI exact).
6.022×10²³ is Avogadro’s number
8.314 is the gas constant (per mol·K).
10^-24 J/K is incorrect by a factor of 10.

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43. The time rate of change of magnetic flux has the exact dimensions as that of

A) Current

B) Resistance

C) Magnetic induction

D) Potential difference

Explanation:

Faraday’s law gives induced emf (ε) as
ε = − dΦ/dt
So dΦ/dt has the same dimensions as emf, and emf is potential difference.

Dimension check:
Magnetic flux
Φ = B A

Magnetic field
[B] = tesla = N/(A m)

[N] = kg m s⁻²
So
[B] = (kg m s⁻²)/(A m)
[B] = kg s⁻² A⁻¹

Now flux:
[Φ] = [B][A]
[Φ] = (kg s⁻² A⁻¹)(m²)
[Φ] = kg m² s⁻² A⁻¹

Rate of change:
[dΦ/dt] = (kg m² s⁻² A⁻¹)/s
[dΦ/dt] = kg m² s⁻³ A⁻¹

Volt (potential difference) also has:
[V] = kg m² s⁻³ A⁻¹

So dΦ/dt matches potential difference.

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44. The dimension of work is like the dimensions of

A) Impulse

B) Torque

C) Power

D) Angular momentum

Explanation:

Work = Force × distance
dimensions: M L² T^-2.
Torque = Force × lever arm
same M L² T^-2.
why other options are wrong:
Impulse (M L T^-1)
angular momentum (M L² T^-1)
power is M L² T^-3.

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45. Which part of the brain controls voluntary movements and balance?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Cerebrum

C) Cerebellum

D) Hypothalamus

Explanation:

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46. Endometriosis will cause infertility in:

A) Male

B) Female

C) Both male & female

D) None of the above

Explanation:

Endometriosis is ectopic endometrial tissue in women, leading to inflammation and adhesions.
It can impair tubal function, ovulation, or implantation, reducing fertility.
It is not a male condition.

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47. Compared with the few days before ovulation, which hormone is released in increased quantities three days after ovulation?

A) FSH

B) LH

C) Oestrogen

D) Progesterone

Explanation:

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48. Which statement best explains why hemophilia is more common in males than in females?

A) It is caused by a dominant autosomal gene

B) It is a Y-linked disorder

C) It is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait

D) It is more often acquired later in life due to liver disease

Explanation:

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49. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for providing long-term immunity after a vaccination?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgM

D) IgE

Explanation:

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50. What is the causative organism of syphilis?

A) Treponema pallidum

B) Micoplasma pneumoniae

C) Plasmodium

D) Vibrio cholera

Explanation:

Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Mycoplasma causes atypical pneumonia
Plasmodium causes malaria
Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.

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51. In a kidney dialysis machine, which substance will not be diffused from the patient’s blood into the dialysis fluid?

A) Protein

B) Salts

C) Urea

D) Water

Explanation:

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52. In the human heart, why is the wall of the right ventricle thicker than the wall of the right atrium?

A) The chambers have different oxygen concentrations

B) The right atrium must pump blood all the way around the body

C) The right ventricle must exert a greater force than the right atrium

D) The right ventricle receives more blood than the right atrium

Explanation:

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53. The genotype for the height of an organism is written as Tt. What conclusion may be drawn?

A) The allele for height has at least two different genes

B) There are at least two different alleles of the gene for height

C) There are two different genes for height, each having a single allele

D) There is one allele for height with two different forms

Explanation:

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54. Which statement about chromosome is correct?

A) Chromosomes are long DNA molecules called genes which are divided into sections

B) Chromosomes include a long molecule of DNA divided into sections called genes

C) Chromosomes include genes which are divided into sections called DNA molecules

D) Genes include long DNA molecules called chromosomes

Explanation:

A chromosome is one long DNA molecule (with proteins) organized into many genes.
Genes are segments of DNA that code for RNAs/proteins.
Options a, c, and d invert this relationship

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55. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the breakdown of two molecules of glucose in aerobic respiration?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 12

Explanation:

Per one glucose: Link reaction (2 CO₂) + Krebs cycle (4 CO₂) = 6 CO₂.
For two glucose molecules: 2×6=12 CO₂ in total.
Glycolysis itself releases no CO₂.

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56. Which statement is correct for all viruses but not for all bacteria and fungi?

A) Most of the cell is cytoplasm

B) Their outer layer is cellulose

C) They are all parasites

D) They have a nucleus containing DNA or RNA

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57. Which structures are all involved in controlling human body temperature?

A) Blood vessels near the skin surface, the cerebellum and sweat glands

B) Blood vessels near the skin surface, the hypothalamus and skeletal muscles

C) Kidneys, the cerebellum and sweat glands

D) Kidneys, the hypothalamus and skeletal muscles

Explanation:

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58. Insulin is manufactured commercially using genetic engineering. Which organism is used to produce large quantities of insulin?

A) Viruses

B) Bacteria

C) Fungi

D) Animals

Explanation:

Recombinant human insulin is produced by inserting the insulin gene into bacteria (e.g., E. coli).
The bacteria express the protein at scale, which is purified for medical use.

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59. Insulin is secreted by:

A) Alpha cells

B) Beta cells

C) Delta cells

D) Acinar cells

Explanation:

60 / 97

60. Testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are hormones of:

A) Steroid nature

B) Amino acid nature

C) Protein nature

D) Polypeptide nature

Explanation:

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61. The type of nerve impulse in non-myelinated neuron will be:

A) Continuous

B) Saltatory

C) Electrical

D) All of them

Explanation:

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62. A wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of a neuron, from one end to the other is:

A) Reflex arc

B) Reflex action

C) Nerve impulse

D) Influx

Explanation:

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63. The bronchioles are located at the end of the bronchi and terminate in the:

A) Lungs

B) Alveoli

C) Alveolar sac

D) Both B and C

Explanation:

The bronchioles are the smallest airways in the lungs. They branch out from the bronchi and end in alveolar structures.

Alveoli (B) are the tiny air sacs where gas exchange takes place.

Alveolar sacs (C) are clusters of alveoli at the end of the bronchioles.

So, bronchioles do not directly terminate in the lungs as a whole (A). Instead, they lead into alveolar sacs, which contain the alveoli.

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64. A respiratory surface must be permeable, thin, have large surface area and a good supply of:

A) Gases

B) Lymph

C) Blood

D) All of them

Explanation:

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65. The respiratory system gives the basic ability to:

A) Smell

B) Transport electrolytes

C) Intake of Oxygen

D) Excrete Creatinine

Explanation:

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66. All of the following are bacillus (rod-shaped) bacteria except:

A) Pseudomonas

B) Clostridium

C) Salmonella

D) Streptococcus

Explanation:

Pseudomonas, Clostridium, and Salmonella are rod-shaped.
Streptococcus are spherical (cocci) arranged in chains.

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67. Which of the following causes tuberculosis and leprosy?

A) Streptomyces

B) Actinomycetes

C) Mycoplasma

D) None of these

Explanation:

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68. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by the oro-fecal route?

A) Hepatitis A

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis C

D) None of the above

Explanation:

HAV spreads via contaminated food/water (fecal-oral).
HBV and HCV are transmitted mainly via blood, sexual contact, and perinatally.
Hepatitis E is also fecal-oral but is not listed here.

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69. All of the following are viruses except:

A) SARS

B) FIV

C) SIV

D) Mycoplasma

Explanation:

Mycoplasma are wall-less bacteria (prokaryotes), not viruses.
SARS is a coronavirus
FIV and SIV are lentiviruses related to HIV.

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70. Tobacco mosaic virus is:

A) Spherical

B) Tad-pole like

C) Rod shape

D) Polyhedral

Explanation:

TMV particles are rigid, helical rods with RNA wrapped in a protein coat. They are neither spherical nor polyhedral and have no tail like bacteriophages.

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71. The first stable product of dark reaction is a ____-carbon molecule:

A) 6

B) 4

C) 3

D) 5

Explanation:

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72. mRNA’s primary function is to

A) bring amino acids to ribosomes

B) replicate DNA

C) transmit genetic code from DNA to ribosomes

D) form the ribosomal structure

Explanation:

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73. Co-enzymes are derived from:

A) Vitamins

B) Minerals

C) Hormones

D) Both A and B

Explanation:

Co-enzymes can be derived from both vitamins and minerals:

From Vitamins:

Many B vitamins serve as precursors to coenzymes (e.g., thiamine → thiamine pyrophosphate, riboflavin → FAD, niacin → NAD+)
Vitamin C is involved in certain enzymatic reactions
Some fat-soluble vitamins also contribute to coenzyme formation

From Minerals:

Metal ions like magnesium, zinc, iron, copper, and manganese function as cofactors in enzymatic reactions
These mineral cofactors are essential for the proper functioning of many enzymes

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74. An enzyme without its cofactor is called:

A) Active site

B) Co-enzyme

C) Prosthetic group

D) Apoenzyme

Explanation:

Apoenzyme = inactive protein part alone.
Holoenzyme = apoenzyme + cofactor (coenzyme or metal ion).
Active site is the catalytic pocket not the whole enzyme.

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75. The covalent bond between glucose and fructose is called:

A) Glycosidic bond

B) Peptide bond

C) Ester bond

D) Hydrogen bond

Explanation:

Sucrose is glucose + fructose linked by a glycosidic bond.
Peptide bonds join amino acids
ester bonds join acids and alcohols in lipids
hydrogen bond is noncovalent.

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76. All of these are disaccharides except:

A) Maltose

B) Lactose

C) Sucrose

D) Fructose

Explanation:

Maltose, lactose, and sucrose are all disaccharides.
Fructose is a monosaccharide (single sugar unit).

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77. The synthesis of glycogen is known as:smal

A) Gluconeogenesis

B) Glycogenolysis

C) Glycolysis

D) Glycogenesis

Explanation:

Glycogenesis builds glycogen from glucose units.
Glycogenolysis breaks glycogen down
glycolysis breaks glucose to pyruvate
gluconeogenesis makes glucose from non-carbs.

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78. Which one is the “drinking” process of the cell?

A) Exocytosis

B) Chloroplast

C) Pinocytosis

D) Phagocytosis

Explanation:

Pinocytosis is uptake of extracellular fluid in small vesicles (“cell drinking”).

Phagocytosis is ingestion of large particles (“cell eating”).
Exocytosis releases contents out of the cell; chloroplast is an organelle.

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79. Damage to cerebellum as a result of head injury will lead to:

A) Poor coordination of movements

B) Irregular heartbeat

C) Lack of temperature control

D) Inability to recognize visual stimuli

Explanation:

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80. Two brothers had different blood groups: one A and the other B. What can be concluded about their parents’ blood-group genotypes?

A) Both of the parents must be heterozygous

B) Both of the parents must be homozygous

C) One parent (at least) must be heterozygous

D) One parent (at least) must be homozygous

Explanation:

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81. Which statement about the ulna is correct?

A) It fits into a notch on the radius to form the elbow joint

B) It forms a hinge joint with the humerus at the shoulder

C) It has a projection to which an extensor muscle is attached

D) It links the radius to the scapula

Explanation:

82 / 97

82. After eating, the pH of the mouth decreases. Which statement explains this decrease?

A) Bacteria release acids

B) Enzymes in saliva release acids

C) Salivary glands release acids

D) Sensory neurons in the tongue release acids

Explanation:

Oral bacteria ferment sugars and produce lactic and other acids.
These acids lower the pH around teeth after meals.

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83. Blood from the ileum is carried in the hepatic portal vein to the liver. Why is this an advantage to the body?

A) Amino acids can be converted to urea before they enter the general circulation

B) Excess glucose can be converted to glycogen for storage and not excreted

C) It ensures that fat products pass through the liver before they reach the heart

D) Toxic materials can be destroyed before they reach any body cells

Explanation:

Portal flow routes absorbed substances first to the liver for detoxification.
Harmful chemicals and drugs can be inactivated before systemic circulation.

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84. The main role of centrioles in animal cells is

A) Photosynthesis

B) Detoxification

C) Formation of spindle fibers during mitosis

D) Protein modification

Explanation:

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85. What are the indirect effects of a rise in heart rate for an athlete during a 200 m race?

A) To increase digestion of carbohydrates

B) To increase ventilation of the lungs with fresh air

C) To reduce the need for anaerobic respiration

D) To reduce the need for sweating to cool the body

Explanation:

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86. How does anaerobic respiration in muscle cells cause a reduction in blood pH?

A) Carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood

B) Ethanol from cell respiration diffuses into the blood

C) Lactic acid diffuses into the blood

D) Oxygen is removed from the blood

Explanation:

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87. Which classification system is based on genome type and replication strategy?

A) ICTV

B) Baltimore

C) Linnaean

D) Gram stain

Explanation:

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88. The excited state which persists for unusually longer period of time is called:

A) Ground state

B) Ionized state

C) Metastable state

D) Ordinary excited state

Explanation:

A metastable state is an excited level with an abnormally long lifetime.
Transitions from it are forbidden or less probable, so decay is slow.

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89. A train runs at 90 km/h. It crosses a pole in 20 seconds. What is the length of the train?

A) 450 m

B) 500 m

C) 520 m

D) 600 m

Explanation:

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90. What is the term for a sentence that expresses strong emotion or surprise?

A) Statement

B) Question

C) Exclamation

D) Imperative

Explanation:

An exclamatory sentence conveys strong feeling or shock.
It often ends with an exclamation mark (!)

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91. What is a figure of speech in which two unlike things are compared using “like” or “as”?

A) Metaphor

B) Simile

C) Personification

D) Hyperbole

Explanation:

A simile makes an explicit comparison using “like” or “as.”
Example: “Brave as a lion,” “floats like a feather.”

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92. The species which are becoming near to extinction are called:

A) Wild

B) Endangered

C) Threatened

D) Vanished

Explanation:

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93. What is the name for a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but does not express a complete thought?

A) Phrase

B) Clause

C) Sentence

D) Paragraph

Explanation:

A clause has a subject + verb; a dependent clause is incomplete in meaning.

A phrase lacks a full subject–verb unit; a sentence expresses a complete thought.

Therefore the described group is a clause.

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94. What is the term for a sentence that gives a command or makes a request?

A) Statement

B) Question

C) Exclamation

D) Imperative

Explanation:

Commands or requests are imperative sentences.

They use the base verb and often have an implied subject “you.”

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95. Which option completes the analogy?

Book : Knowledge :: Weapon : ?

A) War

B) Soldier

C) Power

D) Defense

Explanation:

A book is a tool used to gain knowledge.

A weapon is a tool used to provide protection.

So the parallel relation is Weapon : Defense.

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96. In a certain code language: TRUTH = WUXWK, then LIE = ?

A) OLG

B) OLH

C) OLK

D) OKH

Explanation:

each letter is shifted +3 in the alphabet
T→W
R→U
U→X
T→W
H→K

Apply +3 to L I E:
L→O
I→L
E→H

So LIE → OLH

97 / 97

97. If 5 cats catch 5 mice in 5 minutes, how many cats are needed to catch 100 mice in 100 minutes?

A) 5

B) 10

C) 20

D) 1

Explanation:

5 cats catches 5 mice in 5 min so:
1 cat catches 1 mouse in 5 min.

In 100 min, 1 cat catches 100/5 = 20 mice.

Cats needed for 100 mice = 100/20 = 5.

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